Saturday, November 19, 2011
The Oppressed Find a Voice
Why is it that Shakespeare portrayed Lady macbeth as he did; a tyrannical, ambitious female that emasculates her husband to attain what she wants? No offense ladies, but I am incredulous as to why Shakespeare a man of the Renaissance presented Lady Macbeth as this powerhouse in a time when women were "supposed" to be ladies both in the house and in public. Could this be like Jane Austen's portrayal of Elizabeth Swan. A self-righteous and independent minded female, or to showcase females' frailty if in power. By which I mean that in the last scenes of Macbeth, Lady Macbeth had become insane uttering her displeasure of the actions taken after the murdr of the King. What is Shakespeare's purpose? What inspired him to do this?
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Shakespeare's portral of women showcases femenism to me. In the time of the Renaissance, humanism was embraced. To me, Shakespeare is saying that humanistic qualities aren't just for men. Women too can be ambitious and those last scenes with Lady Macbeth make her appear human. She's complex just like Hamlet and Macbeth; she has feelings too. Other men during the Renaissance placed importance on Women as well. Botticelli in his painting PrimaVera gave ode to women. He told them there was a way for them to be respected. Oh and here's a thought, Queen Elizabeth I of England was known to watch Shakespeare's plays. I don't think England would have taken well to the idea of women being too frail for power.
ReplyDeleteI understand what you are saying and seems pretty feasible however Lady Macbeth's comment "unsex me" still doesn't ring a bell of "lady-like behavior." Its as if she's asking a higher being to change her, that she herself may very well be misogynistic.
ReplyDeleteShakespeare is challenging gender roles by saying that women can be just as ambitious and violent as men. Just because Lady Macbeth's ambition leads her to perform acts of cruelty doesn't mean she's misogynistic. The reason for this "unsex me" speech deals with masculinity and violence. Men were the ones who fought in war and experienced bloodshed. She's not asking to be litterally changed into a man...it's more of her squashing gender roles
ReplyDeleteTrue but has Lady Macbeth actually done anything to squash gender roles. I mean publicly? No, she has hidden behing Macbeth and has maintained the status quo of proper lady behavior in the public's eyes. So does that resemble Botticelli's "La Primavera", which by the way Lady macbeth does not portray by any circumstances(as far as we know), all we know is that Lady Macbeth was an ambitious woman, however, did not attribute "woman-like" behavior, for this time, or display her darker side to the public.
ReplyDeleteHas she? As a part of the audience, I must say, she has taken the manly attribute of ambition to a whole new level for women. Unlike a nonchalant wife, she gets involved with the affairs of her husband; they become PARTNERS in crime. A characteristic present in the “La Primavera” by Botticelli, she uses her womanly trait of sensuality to manipulate Macbeth. Botticelli revealed that there was a way for woman to be respected. Lady Macbeth and her husband both were deeply renowned. She was supposed to be one of the grandest hostesses of their time. Despite having violent tendencies, Shakespeare reminds the public that she is still woman. This makes her a female who posses masculine traits.
ReplyDeleteBut Lady Macbeth does not use "sensuality" to make Macbeth do what she wants...? She emasculates Macbeth. I understand that she does portray herself womanly in public, however, does she like herself?
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